Three players all in preflop and All-in Adj Diff is zero. Am i missing something here?
All in hand. Why All-in Adj Diff is zero?
Three players all in preflop and All-in Adj Diff is zero. Am i missing something here?
It was because 'Villain 1' in the 9 o'clock seat called the short-stack shove and then folded* to the larger rejam.
HM3 uses the same equity code as PT4 now which is more accurate and less biased than the code we used for equity in HM2. *In a hand where a player is all-in but other players are not, net adjusted results are not calculated. *When one player is all-in preflop and other players are not, they usually have the option to act post-flop, which means that sometimes one of them will fold. *Having the option to fold* after another street is dealt means that in the long run, more strong hands will get to showdown and fewer weak hands. *If we were to calculate net adjusted results in hands like this it would introduce a systematic bias (because there will be more known strong hands) so we exclude all hands like this from net adjusted calculations. *You can read more about this here - https://www.pokertracker.com/blog/20...-all-in-equity
*Note: Attempting to calculate adjusted results when unknown but folded cards already called the all-in also introduces a bias into the results so HM3 does not make these calculations in any situation where a player calls the all-in and later folds (even if it's on the same street).
Thank you.
How the preflop dead money in the pot affect hand result that other players plays out?Originally Posted by fozzy71
That is explained in the blog I linked above. I can not explain it any better than that, as I am not a developer. Here is the link again - https://www.pokertracker.com/blog/20...-all-in-equity
I completely agree with this article. All-in EV statistics are never entirely accurate. And yes, we cannot calculate EV on different streets in multi-way situations when one player is already all-in. When the all-in and action occur between multiple players on a single street with no all-in or further actions after that, such situations can be calculated.
Example 1: Hold'em, 6 players with 100 BB each. Everyone folds to the button, the button raises to 3.5 BB, the SB 3-bets, the BB folds, the button goes all-in, and the SB calls. Does HM3 calculate all-in EV for this hand? Yes, it does. Will it be 100% accurate? No, it won’t. We don’t know the hands of the players who folded, and they are not random.
Example 2: Hold'em, 6 players with 100 BB each. Everyone folds, CO limps, the button raises to 4.5 BB, the SB 3-bets, BB folds, CO folds, the button goes all-in, and the SB calls. Does HM3 calculate all-in EV for this hand? Yes, it does.
Example 3: Hold'em, 6-max, 5 players with 100 BB each, with BB holding a 2 BB stack. Everyone folds, CO limps, the button raises to 4.5 BB, SB 3-bets, BB calls, CO folds, the button goes all-in, and the SB calls. Does HM3 calculate all-in EV for this hand? No, it doesn’t.
Example 4: A hand from this topic. No, it doesn’t calculate because the result would not be accurate. 99.3%. Was it accurate before? No, it wasn’t—99.5%.
Example 5: Screenshot.
2024-11-04_161924.jpg
In topic hand there is no option to act post-flop for any player. Why All in equity not calculated?
In the OP: Villain1 called the all-in from short-stack Villain4 preflop, then folded to the reshove preflop.
*Note: Attempting to calculate adjusted results when unknown but folded cards already called the all-in also introduces a bias into the results so HM3 does not make these calculations in any situation where a player calls the all-in and later folds (even if it's on the same street).
^ This was posted before I saw your moderated post above, which I have not reviewed yet.
When you say "In topic hand" were you referring to the GIF in the OP? Or one of the hands/examples you posted?
Last edited by fozzy71; 11-06-2024 at 01:38 PM.
Posting Permissions
Reply With Quote