vpip 60 pfr 40 mr 50 lmp 20 How can I interpret the % vpip = 20+40pfr ? mr 50% of 40pfr? lmp 20% of 20vpip effective? ouch lmp 20% exactly is vpip effective right? And in case I have a 3bet should it be like mr? it's a subset of pfr , so should calculate on this aggregation?
It's all times stat performed divided by opportunities to perform it. They will only be exactly comparable if you have the same # of opportunities.
Regards udbrky (Chris)
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