Question about VPIP calculation

[sreticentv]

I have a player in my database who has 108 hands. He has called or raised preflop 90 times. He has checked preflop 14 times and folded 4 times. Out of the 14 times has has checked pre flop, he went on top bet or call post flop 8 times. His VP$IP is 84.1%. I am confused about how this number is calculated as it seems to me it should be higher.

[Patvs]

90/108 x 100% = 83.33%, so how can 84.1% seem to low?

VPIP is slightly different than the %hands someone plays.
Since he must have committed chips voluntarily into the pot.
When he was in the BB he did not play the hand voluntarily but was forced to. So if a player minraises, and he CALLS in the BB, the hand is counted in the VPIP%. Though if he can CHECK his BB for free and folds the hands postflop it's not.

So I'm surprised his VPIP isn't lower. But I guess this player NEVER gave up his big blind.
And he posted his BB when it wasn't his turn yet. So he played 90/107 x 100% hands = 84.1%

[_Loki_]

Out of the 14 times has has checked pre flop, he went on top bet or call post flop 8 times. His VP$IP is 84.1%. I am confused about how this number is calculated as it seems to me it should be higher.

This is how I understand it... vpip is based only on preflop actions

It's ENTIRELY determined pre-flop. Any time you voluntarily put money into the pot, it counts. That includes when you complete the small blind, or call a raise when you're in the big blind. The only time it doesn't count is when you check from the big blind, or you fold

So I don't know where 84.1% comes from. I make it 90/108 = 83.3%

[sreticentv]

Thanks for the answers guys. My confusion was regarding the 14 times he checked preflop. I thought the calculation would then be 90/94. Thanks for clearing that up.