interpreting the HUD correctly using bayesian

[slowyaroll]

wrong thread my fault im new. haha poor excuse

[Al1]

Your wrong with a lot of things here.

Raise first is when it's folded to you and you raise, thus your hand range is currently 100% of your hands, thus if R1st is 20%, you are raising your top 20%.

Cold Call is when you call a raise preflop when you have not put money currently, thus your hand range is also 100% before you cold call.

If somebody is raising 1st with 13% and limping with 13% from a position, he is generally playing the top 26% and raising with the strong half.

[mksmipalla]

Your wrong with a lot of things here.

Raise first is when it's folded to you and you raise, thus your hand range is currently 100% of your hands, thus if R1st is 20%, you are raising your top 20%.

Cold Call is when you call a raise preflop when you have not put money currently, thus your hand range is also 100% before you cold call.

If somebody is raising 1st with 13% and limping with 13% from a position, he is generally playing the top 26% and raising with the strong half.

If Cold Call is only when you haven't put money in then if someone raises from EP and i just call the raise from the small blind this would not count as a cold call?

[Al1]

Sorry, voluntary put money. Calling a raise from the blinds is a cold call too.

[mksmipalla]

OK. Thanks.

[slowyaroll]

Your wrong with a lot of things here.

Raise first is when it's folded to you and you raise, thus your hand range is currently 100% of your hands, thus if R1st is 20%, you are raising your top 20%.

Cold Call is when you call a raise preflop when you have not put money currently, thus your hand range is also 100% before you cold call.

If somebody is raising 1st with 13% and limping with 13% from a position, he is generally playing the top 26% and raising with the strong half.

thanks. Yeah i raise first is when itos folded to you and you raise. I am familiar with that. Im talking about VPIP, PFR, 3 betting. If someone is vpip 50% of hands from the button but only pfr 25% than he is raising with the top 12.5% of his range am i correct? because the top 1/4 of 50% is 12.5%. Or is he just raising with the top 25% of his range of the total vpip 50% range from the button?

If he 3bets with 11% of his hands from button that is the top 11% of hands? or the top 11% of the 50% vpip he plays from that spot? Thats where im confused and updating. Multiple people have told me different things.Same if someone 4 bets with 5% of hands. Is it 5% of his 4 betting range? or the top 5% of hands he vpip with int hat spot period?

This is all relevant to stats such as donk betting %, ebet%,pfr%,cold call%, open raise %,limp %, etc etc. Its confusing as to how to constantly update the information based on how the opponent acts or responds to a certain action

[Al1]

When someone 3bets, his range is currently 100%, thus if he's 3betting 5%, that's the top 5% of all hands.
For raise 1st too.
HM only considere a 4bet when the 1st raiser raise the 3bettor. Thus in this case, if you have a 10% 4bet%, that's 10% of his 1st raise range, this is why HM has created a 4bet range, which multiply 4bet% * PFR and the 4bet range gives you the % from his total range.

[DarkMagus]

When someone 3bets, his range is currently 100%, thus if he's 3betting 5%, that's the top 5% of all hands.
For raise 1st too.
HM only considere a 4bet when the 1st raiser raise the 3bettor. Thus in this case, if you have a 10% 4bet%, that's 10% of his 1st raise range, this is why HM has created a 4bet range, which multiply 4bet% * PFR and the 4bet range gives you the % from his total range.

HM does not consider a limp/raise to be a 3bet?

[slowyaroll]

When someone 3bets, his range is currently 100%, thus if he's 3betting 5%, that's the top 5% of all hands.
For raise 1st too.
HM only considere a 4bet when the 1st raiser raise the 3bettor. Thus in this case, if you have a 10% 4bet%, that's 10% of his 1st raise range, this is why HM has created a 4bet range, which multiply 4bet% * PFR and the 4bet range gives you the % from his total range.

sorry for the misunderstanding but this doesnt make sense to me or helpes clarify.

If someone has a range of a 100% and 3bets 5% thats 5% f hands? huh?

what is the range of a 100%? was it vpip?

Basically what I am asking to make it simple is updating the ranges based on actions. If someone has a vpip of 50% of hands and pfr with 10% of hands are they PFR with the top 5% of hands?(i got this by .50*.10) or are they pfr with the top 10% of hands period out of those possible 100% range?(which would be aa-77,a9s+,ajo+,kts+,qts+,Jts+,KQO

Same for open call. If someone has a vpip with top 50% of hands and open calls with 10% of hands, what part of that range are they cold calling with?

If i know opponent sees the flop with 20% of hands and cbets with 30% of the time is he cbetting with the top 6% of hands??(.20*.30)

basically do you multiply the new action sequency byt he vpip to ge tthe updated range?

I understand everythign else on the hUD but this part which is updating the rnges based on actions.

Sorry fi i seem like a pest