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crocogiles
01-26-2009, 03:56 PM
I am trying to use these stats to range properly and would appreciate some help with the numbers.

For example
With a Villain running at 20%vpip 15%pfr and 6%3bet over 200 hands,

is the 3 bet % calculated by number of times Villain 3 bets as a % of the 200 hands so in this eg villain has 3 bet 12 times?

With this in mind HEM's description of PFR states that a Villains 3 bet numbers directly contribute to the PFR numbers as well.

Does this mean that in the example above the following is true:
15% vpip is 30 times as 6% 3 bet is 12 times therefore if we remove the 3 bet% from the pfr % then Villains pfr without the 3 bet included is 18 times and 9% ?

Several questions but any help would be appreciated.

morny
01-26-2009, 04:48 PM
No, in that 2000 hand sample it only counts based on the oppurtunities to 3bet, when hes UTG for example he cant 3bet so all the UTG hands are discluded, when someone else already 3bets then theyre also discluded so there might only be 70 situations where its possible to 3bet over that sample of 200

To explain VPIP its counted whereever we volutarily put money into the pot, were forced to post the SB and BB so these dont count as there not voluntary however if we complete the SB then thats voluntary. Obviously if you 3bet this counts as VPIP too so if i play 10 hands and 3bet every one of them my 3bet 5 will be 100% and so will my VPIP. if over that sample i limped into 3 pots and 3bet 2 hands then i would have 50% vpip.