View Full Version : whats the means between 4bet% and 4bet range
poker_limit
11-12-2008, 12:38 PM
edit (just added the question :)): whats the means between 4bet% and 4bet range
thanks :>
edit (just added the question :)): whats the means between 4bet% and 4bet range
thanks :>
Hi,
Generally, when you 4bet somebody, you have previoulsy "Raise 1st" ("2bet") and have been Reraise ("3bet").
Thus, when you raise the first time, your "Raise 1st" % equals the % of hand you raise among all the hands you are dealt. Ok?
Ex: If you "Raise 1st" UTG in 6max games 10% of the time, that means you are raising 10% of 100% of the hands your are dealt. Ok?
Now, when you face a 3bet and decide to 4bet, the "4bet" % is the % you raise this 3bet from your "Raise 1st" range (10%).
Ex: Same "Raise 1st" as before, you are 3betted. And you will 4bet, say 30% (random choice by me) of your "Raise 1st" range.
Here your 4bet% is 30% of your "Raise 1st" range
But what percentage those 30% represent among all the hands you are dealt:
Only 30% of 10%, which is 3%, and this is what "4bet range" calculate!
It's more easy to associate are range to 3% than 30% of 10%, which is generally JJ+, AK+
(those numbers are just examples and not accurate, the reasoning is correct :))
Ok?
p.s.: You can find explanations on every stats here: http://208.109.95.123/faq/afmviewfaq.aspx?faqid=155
jzimring
01-30-2009, 04:50 PM
Hi,
Generally, when you 4bet somebody, you have previoulsy "Raise 1st" ("2bet") and have been Reraise ("3bet").
Thus, when you raise the first time, your "Raise 1st" % equals the % of hand you raise among all the hands you are dealt. Ok?
Ex: If you "Raise 1st" UTG in 6max games 10% of the time, that means you are raising 10% of 100% of the hands your are dealt. Ok?
Now, when you face a 3bet and decide to 4bet, the "4bet" % is the % you raise this 3bet from your "Raise 1st" range (10%).
Ex: Same "Raise 1st" as before, you are 3betted. And you will 4bet, say 30% (random choice by me) of your "Raise 1st" range.
Here your 4bet% is 30% of your "Raise 1st" range
But what percentage those 30% represent among all the hands you are dealt:
Only 30% of 10%, which is 3%, and this is what "4bet range" calculate!
It's more easy to associate are range to 3% than 30% of 10%, which is generally JJ+, AK+
(those numbers are just examples and not accurate, the reasoning is correct :))
Ok?
p.s.: You can find explanations on every stats here: http://208.109.95.123/faq/afmviewfaq.aspx?faqid=155
I'm confused. Isn't what you described above PFR multiplied by 4bet%, not PFR divided by 4bet%?
In all the documentation, it says divided by, but your example seems to indicate otherwise?
Thanks!
TierTier
01-30-2009, 06:25 PM
I'm confused. Isn't what you described above PFR multiplied by 4bet%, not PFR divided by 4bet%?
In all the documentation, it says divided by, but your example seems to indicate otherwise?
Thanks!
.3*.1 = .3/10
Just two ways of describing the same thing.
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