Suerte
11-05-2008, 02:50 PM
I am examining "Avg Preflop All-In EV%" "Avg Flop All-In EV" and "Avg Turn All-In EV" for myself as well as my best opponents.
Am I correct in assuming that my personal EV% will be much higher than my opponents? I suspect the reason for this is the fact that in observed hands, often times players hands are not visible or shown, even though it went to showdown.
An example is when I look at an observed hand, and two players get it all in preflop, and the guy in position loses, it usually auto mucks his hand and we never know what he had. I assume this makes his EV% 0%. Correct? And when he wins the hand when he is out of position, he must show as well as the first guy, which makes his EV% like 80% (overpair vs underpair).
Am I correct in assuming this? Or am I just godly when I get it all in before the river.
Am I correct in assuming that my personal EV% will be much higher than my opponents? I suspect the reason for this is the fact that in observed hands, often times players hands are not visible or shown, even though it went to showdown.
An example is when I look at an observed hand, and two players get it all in preflop, and the guy in position loses, it usually auto mucks his hand and we never know what he had. I assume this makes his EV% 0%. Correct? And when he wins the hand when he is out of position, he must show as well as the first guy, which makes his EV% like 80% (overpair vs underpair).
Am I correct in assuming this? Or am I just godly when I get it all in before the river.