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akvsaq
03-14-2010, 09:56 AM
Question 1: Is it the percentage of the VPIP or on the whole? Let's say there are two players. One is 80 VPIP and 20 PFR, the other is 30 VPIP and 20 PFR. Is the one with the 80 VPIP PFR'ing with more hands or they are both PFR'ing the same?

Question 2: Let's say player 1 has VPIP of 80, and his PFR from UTG is 8. Player 2 has VPIP of 30, and his PFR from UTG is also 8. Who is raising more preflop from UTG, player 1, player 2, or the same?

Patvs
03-14-2010, 10:17 AM
-1 PFR is percentage preflop raised of ALL hands.
So a 30/20 player and a 80/20 player, BOTH raise 20% of their starting hands.

-2 Also the same.