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RainbowJJ
01-18-2012, 11:13 AM
I have a question regarding the stat 4Bet-Range: (Total PFR divided by Total 4Bet%)

If somebody have a PFR stat of 20% and a 4Bet stat of 40%, then the 4Bet-Range stat would be 50%. But what use is that information for?

Hope somebody can explain it to me.

Best regards
Henrik

Patvs
01-19-2012, 12:20 AM
Example:
Player A raises-->Player B 3bets---> what's the likelihood player A will 4bet?
4Bet is 40%.
Player A's PFR is 5%, so he's only raising his top 5% of hands, AA, KK, QQ, AK (hands that are only normal to 4bet).
Then his 4Bet Range is 12.5%

Now let's say player A's PFR = 20%
4Bet is still 40%. -->4Bet Range is 50%


Both player's 4Bet is 40%.
But the second player (PFR = 20%) will also occasionally be 4betting with a not-so-very-strong hand.
Whereas the first player (PFR = 5%) only 4bets strong hands.

That's what you can see in one instance (without having to also look at PFR) just by looking at the 4Bet-Range.