How does the stat VPIP work?

[BiguelOne]

I´m having trouble calculating this important stat because the % of limping + the % of PFRaising isn´t equal to VPIP. What else does Holdem Manager add to this calculation?
http://www.subirimagen.es/08/0810/215087/limp_2Bpfr.JPG

[morny]

VPIP = % of hands player voluntarily puts money into the pot. The difference could possibly be caused by a limp RR which would attach a % to both limp and PFR so for example my 1st hand i limp RR, i would be 100% limp and 100% PFR.

Another scenario, lets take 2 hands im in CO and someone raises UTG, i cant limp now its impossible i only have the option to fold or call or PFR(3bet) say i fold.

Limp 0/0
Call 0/1
PFR 0/1

Next hand im on the button and theres 1 limper and no raiser, i can PFR or i can limp or fold but i cant call because there is no raise so i decide to PFR.

Limp 0/1 = 0%
Call 0/1 = 0%
PFR 1/2 = 50%

So the fact that you dont have an oppurtunity to do one or the other on every occasion and also the fact you can do 2 things will lead to Limp+Call+PFR not adding up to V$PIP

[KobyPT]

i have a question here:

lets say we are playing hu , i am always the btn, i fold first hand, raise 2º, villain calls, will his vpip (on bb) be 100% or just 50%? will it be 100% (2/2) or 100 (1/1) or 50% (1/2)?

pretty sure its either 2/2 or 1/2 but i am confused.

[morny]

First hand you fold, he doesn't have the opportunity to VPIP since it was folded to him so after 1st hand he would be 0% (0) and 2nd hand he calls and puts money in so he would be 100% (1/1) as he had 1 opportunity in the 2 hands to VPIP and did vpip.